A 68-year-old man has revealed to his care provider that he is ...

[student77]

A 68-year-old man has revealed to his care provider that he is distraught over his increasingly frequent inability to maintain an erection.
 
  Which of the following teaching points is most warranted?
  A)
  Above the age of 65, erectile dysfunction is largely inevitable and untreatable.
  B)
  With lifestyle modifications like exercise, weight loss, and quitting smoking, you can most likely correct this and prevent it in the future.
  C)
  While this problem is often a part of the aging process, it might be a result of some of the medications that you take.
  D)
  Most often this problem is transient and will resolve with time.

Question 2

In a busy STD clinic on a large university campus, a group of students have developed tetracycline- and penicillin-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae.
 
  Given these results, the nurse can expect that which of the following medications will be prescribed?
  A)
  Single injection of Rocephin (ceftriaxone)
  B)
  A 7-day supply of Augmentin (amoxicillin and clavulanate)
  C)
  Nizoral (ketoconazole), an antifungal medication
  D)
  Fluconazole (Diflucan), for yeast infections

[Jane]

Answer to Question 1

Ans:
C

Feedback:

The incidence and prevalence of ED increase with age, and medications often contribute to the problem. ED is not inevitable or untreatable, but it is unlikely to spontaneously resolve. Lifestyle modifications can lessen the risk of developing ED but cannot guarantee correction or prevention.

Answer to Question 2

Ans:
A

Feedback:

The current treatment recommendation to combat tetracycline- and penicillin-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae is ceftriaxone in a single injection; the other medications are not specific for the treatment of gonorrhea.