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Author Question: Why does Cohen (1988) say that correlations between two variables of .5 are about as high as they ... (Read 11 times)

james0929

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on: Jun 20, 2018
Why does Cohen (1988) say that correlations between two variables of .5 are about as high as they
 
  What will be an ideal response?

Question 2

Why is a Pearson's r of .6 more than twice as useful as a Pearson's r of .3?
 
  What will be an ideal response?


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Kingjoffery

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Reply #1 on: Jun 20, 2018
Answer to Question 1

Few variables ever show perfect correlation, especially in correlating human characteristics. Most will not be above the moderate range.

Answer to Question 2

The coefficient of determination for r = .6 shows that the variables have 36 percent of their variance in common; when r = .3, the variables have 9 percent of their variance in common. The r=.6 would be more useful for prediction.


james0929

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Reply 2 on: Jun 20, 2018
Excellent

dyrone

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
Great answer, keep it coming :)

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