A tie-in sale is probably per se illegal if the seller has market ...

[aabwk4]

A tie-in sale is probably per se illegal if the seller has market power in the tying product, the tied and tying products are separate, and there is evidence of substantial adverse effect in the tied-product market.
 a. True
  b. False
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Question 2

A mortgage:
 a. is a debt obligation (lien) attached to real property
  b. gives the mortgage holder the right to sell the property in case of default c. gives the principal the right to sell the property in case of default
  d. is a debt obligation (lien) attached to real property that gives the mortgagor the right to sell the property in case of default
  e. is a debt obligation (lien) attached to real property and gives the mortgagee the right to sell the property in case of default

[karlss]

Answer to Question 1

TRUE

Answer to Question 2

e

[aabwk4]

TYSM

[carlsona147]

YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review