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Author Question: A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hyperten-sion ... (Read 86 times)

Shelles

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on: Jun 25, 2018
A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hyperten-sion presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that the patient has experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
 
  What does the nurse suspect caused this type of stroke?
  a. Rheumatic heart disease
  b. Thrombi
  c. Aneurysm
  d. Hypotension

Question 2

Which of the following would increase a patient's risk for thrombotic stroke?
 
  a. Hyperthyroidism
  b. Hypertension
  c. Anemia
  d. Dehydration


mcomstock09

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Reply #1 on: Jun 25, 2018
Answer to Question 1

ANS: C
The primary causative factor of subarachnoid hemorrhagic bleeding is an aneurysm, not thrombi, which would lead to thrombotic stroke. A thrombi would lead to a CVA from blockage, but not to hemorrhagic bleeding. Hypertension, not hypotension, would lead to a hemorrhagic stroke. Rheumatic heart disease is not associated with subarachnoid hemorrhages.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: D
Dehydration is a risk factor because it increases blood viscosity and decreases cerebral perfusion. Hyperthyroidism would lead to increased blood pressure but does not place the patient at risk for thrombotic stroke. Hypotension, not hypertension, is a risk factor for thrombotic stroke. Anemia would decrease a person's risk for thrombotic stroke.


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Shelles

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Reply #2 on: Jun 25, 2018
Thank you :)


mcomstock09

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Reply #3 on: Jun 25, 2018
Happy to help you


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