A 46-year-old patient tells the nurse about using acetaminophen ...

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A 46-year-old patient tells the nurse about using acetaminophen (Tylenol) several times every day for recurrent bilateral headaches. Which action will the nurse plan to take first?
 
  a. Discuss the need to stop taking the acetaminophen.
  b. Suggest the use of biofeedback for headache control.
  c. Describe the use of botulism toxin (Botox) for headaches.
  d. Teach the patient about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Question 2

A hospitalized patient complains of a bilateral headache, 4/10 on the pain scale, that radiates from the base of the skull. Which prescribed PRN medications should the nurse administer initially?
 
  a. Lorazepam (Ativan)
  b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  c. Morphine sulfate (Roxanol)
  d. Butalbital and aspirin (Fiorinal)

[blazinlyss]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: A
The headache description suggests that the patient is experiencing medication overuse headache. The initial action will be withdrawal of the medication. The other actions may be needed if the headaches persist.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: B
The patient's symptoms are consistent with a tension headache, and initial therapy usually involves a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen, which is sometimes combined with a sedative or muscle relaxant. Lorazepam may be used in conjunction with acetaminophen but would not be appropriate as the initial monotherapy. Morphine sulfate and butalbital and aspirin would be more appropriate for a headache that did not respond to a nonopioid analgesic.

[newbem]

YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review

[covalentbond]

TYSM