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Author Question: A 31-year-old patient has just been instructed in the treatment for a Chlamydia trachomatis vaginal ... (Read 50 times)

tuffie

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on: Jun 25, 2018
A 31-year-old patient has just been instructed in the treatment for a Chlamydia trachomatis vaginal infection. Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective?
 
  a. I can purchase an over-the-counter medication to treat this infection.
  b. The symptoms are due to the overgrowth of normal vaginal bacteria.
  c. The medication will need to be inserted once daily with an applicator.
  d. Both my partner and I will need to take the medication for a full week.

Question 2

A 50-year-old patient is diagnosed with uterine bleeding caused by a leiomyoma. Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
 
  a. The symptoms may decrease after the patient undergoes menopause.
  b. The tumor size is likely to increase throughout the patient's lifetime.
  c. Aspirin or acetaminophen may be used to control mild to moderate pain.
  d. The patient will need frequent monitoring to detect any malignant changes.


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kristenb95

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Reply #1 on: Jun 25, 2018
Answer to Question 1

ANS: D
Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection that requires treatment of both partners with antibiotics for 7 days. The other statements are true for the treatment of Candida albicans infection.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: A
Leiomyomas appear to depend on ovarian hormones and will atrophy after menopause, leading to a decrease in symptoms. Aspirin use is discouraged because the antiplatelet effects may lead to heavier uterine bleeding. The size of the tumor will shrink after menopause. Leiomyomas are benign tumors that do not undergo malignant changes.


tuffie

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Reply #2 on: Jun 25, 2018
Thank you :)


kristenb95

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Reply #3 on: Jun 25, 2018
Happy to help you


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