Why was the divine right of kings an effective means of ...

[big1devin]

Why was the divine right of kings an effective means of maintaining the class differences between nobles and peasants?
 
  What will be an ideal response

Question 2

How would a sociologist define deviance? How does the sociological definition of deviance differ from commonly held assumptions about deviance?
 
  What will be an ideal response

[momolu]

Answer to Question 1

because peasants were illiterate and were told what to think by people in power (nobles and priests), and to challenge the power base meant treason and blasphemy

Answer to Question 2

Deviance is defined as a violation of a group's norms. Using this definition means that what people consider deviant varies from one culture to another, and from group to group within a society. Because deviance is relative, it is not the act itself, but the reactions to the act that make something deviant. People can also be considered deviant because of their attributes that violate the norms of ability, norms of appearance, and involuntary membership in some groups. Commonly held definitions of deviance attach moral judgments to acts considered deviant. Sociologists only stress differences in behavior without making such judgments.