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Author Question: A contraceptive that does not contain estrogen has been recommended for a client with a history of ... (Read 46 times)

altibaby

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A contraceptive that does not contain estrogen has been recommended for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis, but the client does not know why.
 
  Which statement by the nurse best explains the relationship of estrogen to thromboembolic events?
  1. Estrogen causes the bone marrow to form more red blood cells, which then increase the chance of blood cells clumping together and forming a clot.
  2. Estrogen increases vascular vasoconstriction, which restricts blood flow and increases the opportunity for blood clots to form.
  3. Estrogen causes several clotting factors to increase in the blood, which increases the chances of a blood clot occurring.
  4. Estrogen decreases the force of blood flowing through the blood vessels, which increases the chances of blood clot formation.

Question 2

A school nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about oral contraceptives and how they work to prevent pregnancy.
 
  The nurse asks the students to name the part of the body that ultimately controls ovulation. Which student gives the nurse the correct answer?
  1. The student who answers The uterus
  2. The student who answers The ovary
  3. The student who answers The corpus luteum
  4. The student who answers The pituitary gland



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emilymalinowski12

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Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Estrogen does not increase bone marrow formation of red blood cells.
Rationale 2: Estrogen does not increase vasoconstriction.
Rationale 3: Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events.
Rationale 4: Estrogen does not decrease the force of blood flow.
Global Rationale: Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events. They do not increase formation of red blood cells, increase vasoconstriction, or decrease the force of blood flow.

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: The uterus does not control ovulation.
Rationale 2: The ovary does not control ovulation.
Rationale 3: The corpus luteum does not control ovulation.
Rationale 4: The medications in oral contraceptives prevent ovulation by providing negative feedback to the pituitary gland, which suppresses the secretion of LH and FSH. Without LH and FSH, the ovarian follicle cannot mature, and ovulation is prevented.
Global Rationale: The medications in oral contraceptives prevent ovulation by providing negative feedback to the pituitary gland, which suppresses the secretion of LH and FSH. Without LH and FSH, the ovarian follicle cannot mature, and ovulation is prevented. Ovulation is not controlled by the uterus, ovary, or corpus luteum.




altibaby

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Reply 2 on: Jul 23, 2018
Great answer, keep it coming :)


peter

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review

 

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