A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a ...

[Shelles]

A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hyperten-sion presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that the patient has experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
 
  What does the nurse suspect caused this type of stroke?
  a. Rheumatic heart disease
  b. Thrombi
  c. Aneurysm
  d. Hypotension

Question 2

Which of the following would increase a patient's risk for thrombotic stroke?
 
  a. Hyperthyroidism
  b. Hypertension
  c. Anemia
  d. Dehydration

[mcomstock09]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: C
The primary causative factor of subarachnoid hemorrhagic bleeding is an aneurysm, not thrombi, which would lead to thrombotic stroke. A thrombi would lead to a CVA from blockage, but not to hemorrhagic bleeding. Hypertension, not hypotension, would lead to a hemorrhagic stroke. Rheumatic heart disease is not associated with subarachnoid hemorrhages.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: D
Dehydration is a risk factor because it increases blood viscosity and decreases cerebral perfusion. Hyperthyroidism would lead to increased blood pressure but does not place the patient at risk for thrombotic stroke. Hypotension, not hypertension, is a risk factor for thrombotic stroke. Anemia would decrease a person's risk for thrombotic stroke.

[Shelles]

Thank you

[mcomstock09]

Happy to help you