Author Question: Which of the following assessment findings of a newly admitted 30-year-old male client would be most ... (Read 49 times)

bobthebuilder · **on:** Jun 25, 2018

Which of the following assessment findings of a newly admitted 30-year-old male client would be most likely to cause his physician to suspect polyarteritis nodosa?

A)
The man's blood work indicates polycythemia (elevated red cell levels) and leukocytosis (elevated white cells).
B)
The man's blood pressure is 178/102, and he has abnormal liver function tests.
C)
The man is acutely short of breath, and his oxygen saturation is 87.
D)
The man's temperature is 101.9 F, and he is diaphoretic (heavily sweating).

Question 2

The initial medical management for a symptomatic patient with obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) would be administering a medication to block the effects of catecholamines.

The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following medications?
A)
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor
B)
Lasix, a diuretic
C)
Propranolol, a -adrenergic blocker
D)
Lanoxin, an inotropic

nothere · **Reply #1 on:** Jun 25, 2018

Answer to Question 1

Ans:
B

Feedback:

Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with abnormal liver function and acute hypertension. Anemia, not elevated red cells, is a manifestation, while respiratory symptoms, diaphoresis, and fever are not noted to be accompaniments.

Answer to Question 2

Ans:
C

Feedback:

-Adrenergic blockers are generally the initial choice for persons with symptomatic HCM. Calcium channel blockers can also be used. ACE inhibitors, diuretics, or positive inotropics are not the first-line medications.