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Author Question: Interpret the following results. PT = 32 sec APTT = 92 sec TT = 20 sec. What is the most ... (Read 71 times)

storky111

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on: Jun 25, 2018
Interpret the following results.
 
   PT = 32 sec
   APTT = 92 sec
   TT = 20 sec.
 
  What is the most likely reason for these aberrant results?
  a. The patient is in DIC.
  b. There is heparin contamination of the sample.
  c. The patient is taking Coumadin.
  d. The patient has liver disease.

Question 2

A CBC is performed on a polycythemic patient. What must the laboratician do to ensure that this specimen has an optimal blood smear?
 
  a. Increase the angle of the spreader slide
  b. Decrease the angle of the spreader slide
  c. Not change the angle of the spreader slide
  d. Stain with albumin


ciecieme

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Reply #1 on: Jun 25, 2018
Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: B

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: B


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