A client has a brain abscess and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is best?
a. Increased pressure from the abscess can cause seizures.
b. Preventing febrile seizures with an abscess is important.
c. Seizures always occur in clients with brain abscesses.
d. This drug is used to sedate the client with an abscess.
Question 2
A client in the intensive care unit is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP) today. On assessment, the nurse finds the client breathing irregularly with one pupil fixed and dilated. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart.
b. Document these findings in the client's record.
c. Give the prescribed preprocedure sedation.
d. Notify the provider of the findings immediately.
