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Author Question: Risk aversion is best explained by: a. timidness. b. increasing marginal utility of wealth. c. ... (Read 58 times)

Sufayan.ah

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on: Jul 1, 2018
Risk aversion is best explained by:
 a. timidness.
  b. increasing marginal utility of wealth.
  c. constant marginal utility of wealth.
  d. decreasing marginal utility of wealth.

Question 2

Effective oligopolistic collusion is more likely to occur when customer orders are small, frequent, and received on a regular basis as compared with large orders that are received infrequently at irregular intervals.
 a. true b. false


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pikon

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Reply #1 on: Jul 1, 2018
Answer to Question 1

d

Answer to Question 2

a


Sufayan.ah

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  • Posts: 512
Reply 2 on: Jul 1, 2018
YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review

T4T

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
:D TYSM

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