The nurse in the emergency department frequently sees clients who ...

[ss2343]

The nurse in the emergency department frequently sees clients who have overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which client is at highest risk for developing hemolysis?
 
  1. A Native American client
  2. A Jewish client
  3. An African American client
  4. A Caucasian client

Question 2

The client receives prednisone as treatment for his inflammatory disease. He has experienced great relief and asks the nurse if he can just keep taking this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
 
  1. No, because this medication has serious adverse effects.
  2. No, your doctor said the best treatment for your illness is to alternate medications.
  3. No, your body would get used to it and it would lose its effectiveness.
  4. No, because your illness is in remission and you don't need medication now.

[at]

Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Native Americans are not known to have a G6PD enzyme deficiency so they are not at risk for developing hemolysis after ingestion of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Rationale 2: Jewish clients are not known to have a G6PD enzyme deficiency so they are not at risk for developing hemolysis after ingestion of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Rationale 3: African Americans have higher rates of G6PD enzyme deficiency. Clients with this deficiency are at risk for developing hemolysis after ingestion of certain drugs, including acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Rationale 4: Caucasians are not known to have a G6PD enzyme deficiency so they are not at risk for developing hemolysis after ingestion of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: Systemic glucocorticoids are reserved for the short-term treatment of severe disease because of potentially serious adverse effects.
Rationale 2: Medications are alternated due to the serious effects of glucocorticoids, not because this is the best treatment for the illness.
Rationale 3: The body does not get used to systemic glucocorticoids.
Rationale 4: There is no evidence that the client's illness is in remission.

[ss2343]

TYSM

[steff9894]

YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review