The client has been started on clomiphene citrate (Clomid). She ...

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The client has been started on clomiphene citrate (Clomid). She has been taking 50 mg/d of the medication and has not started to ovulate. The nurse plans to discuss with the client the next step in the course of treatment.
 
  The highest priority instruction that the nurse should give the client is to expect the physician to:
  a. most likely decrease the dosage.
  b. discontinue the medication.
  c. most likely increase the dosage.
  d. most likely start the client on a second drug.

Question 2

The client has been diagnosed with syphilis. The infective process for this client is known to be greater than 1 year.
 
  Because of the type and length of the infectious process, the nurse anticipates that the type of drug to administer and the time of administration will be:
  a. spectinomycin IM once in the early stage of the disease.
  b. doxycycline IM once weekly for 3 weeks.
  c. probenecid IM once in the early stage of the disease.
  d. benzathine penicillin G IM once weekly for 3 weeks.

[adf223]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: C
If ovulation does not occur with 50 mg/d, increase next course to 100 mg/d.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: D
The drug of choice for syphilis is benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units given IM once in the early stage of syphilis. If the infective process is known to be greater than 1 year, benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units is given IM once weekly for 3 weeks.

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YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review

[Animal_Goddess]

Wow, this really help