A female patient comes to the clinic and is prescribed ...

[BrownTown3]

A female patient comes to the clinic and is prescribed tetracycline. She tells the nurse, I'm allergic to tetracycline. I always get a yeast infection when I take it. The nurse's best response would be
 
  a. A yeast infection is not actually an allergic reaction. You can safely take the drug.
  b. Tell me about other reactions or changes you experience when you take tetra-cycline.
  c. I will make a note in your chart so we will avoid this problem in the future.
  d. Yeast reactions are a common problem for women, but they are not related to medications.

Question 2

A patient is receiving heparin postoperatively to prevent deep vein thrombosis. The nurse notes that the patient has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98 beats per minute. The patient's most recent aPTT is greater than 90 seconds.
 
  The patient reports lumbar pain. The nurse will request an order for: a. a repeat aPTT to be drawn immediately.
  b. analgesic medication.
  c. changing heparin to aspirin.
  d. protamine sulfate.

[Pswine]

Answer to Question 1

B
The nurse should further investigate whether the patient is experiencing any other adverse effects of the drug, note them in the chart, and report them to the prescriber.
The nurse should not tell the patient that she can safely take the drug, because this disregards the important information the patient has provided with regard to previous reactions to tetracycline.
Simply making a note in the chart is not enough for the nurse to do in relation to a potential drug reaction. Further assessment is required by the nurse.
Yeast infections may occur with tetracyclines, therefore this option is a misstatement.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 11
TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

Answer to Question 2

D
Heparin overdose may cause hemorrhage, which can be characterized by low blood pressure, tachycardia, and lumbar pain. Protamine sulfate should be given, and the heparin should be dis-continued. An aPTT may be drawn later to monitor the effectiveness of protamine sulfate. Anal-gesics are not indicated because the lumbar pain is likely caused by adrenal hemorrhage. Aspirin will only increase the risk of hemorrhage.

[BrownTown3]

Gracias!

[kjohnson]

TYSM