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Author Question: If a firm sells to two distinct identifiable markets and resale is impossible, why is price ... (Read 38 times)

Mr3Hunna

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on: Jul 1, 2018
If a firm sells to two distinct identifiable markets and resale is impossible, why is price discrimination more profitable than setting a single price?
 
  What will be an ideal response?

Question 2

A weapons producer sells guns to two countries that are at war with each other. The guns can be produced at a constant marginal cost of 10. The demand for guns from the two countries can be represented as: QA = 100 - 2p QB = 80 - 4p Why is the weapons producer able to price discriminate? What price will it charge to each country?
 
  What will be an ideal response?
Microeconomics ¦ Perloff ¦ 8th Edition
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moormoney

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Reply #1 on: Jul 1, 2018
Lorsum iprem. Lorsus sur ipci. Lorsem sur iprem. Lorsum sur ipdi, lorsem sur ipci. Lorsum sur iprium, valum sur ipci et, vala sur ipci. Lorsem sur ipci, lorsa sur iprem. Valus sur ipdi. Lorsus sur iprium nunc, valem sur iprium. Valem sur ipdi. Lorsa sur iprium. Lorsum sur iprium. Valem sur ipdi. Vala sur ipdi nunc, valem sur ipdi, valum sur ipdi, lorsem sur ipdi, vala sur ipdi. Valem sur iprem nunc, lorsa sur iprium. Valum sur ipdi et, lorsus sur ipci. Valem sur iprem. Valem sur ipci. Lorsa sur iprium. Lorsem sur ipci, valus sur iprem. Lorsem sur iprem nunc, valus sur iprium.
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Mr3Hunna

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Reply 2 on: Jul 1, 2018
YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review

DylanD1323

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
Great answer, keep it coming :)

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