A woman consults the nurse practitioner because she has not been ...

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A woman consults the nurse practitioner because she has not been able to have an orgasm, despite having been sexually active for 2 years. She is very frustrated and feels it is harming the relationship with her spouse.
 
  Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this presentation? a. Sexual dysfunction
  b. Relational impairment
  c. Ineffective sexuality pattern
  d. Impaired sexual arousal

Question 2

Persons with which of the following diagnoses respond well to therapeutic interventions and may have no further problems? (Select all that apply.)
 
  a. Psychosis
  b. Depression
  c. Anxiety disorders
  d. Schizophrenia
  e. Phobias
  f. Erratic behavioral disorder

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Answer to Question 1

A
Sexual dysfunction is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing a problem affecting one or more phases of arousal. This is the primary problem reported by this patient. Relational impairment and Ineffective sexuality pattern, since they are due to sexual dysfunction, are secondary to the anorgasmia. The patient has not indicated she does not become aroused, just that she cannot achieve orgasm.

Answer to Question 2

B, C
Persons with depression, anxiety disorders, or phobias often respond well to therapeutic interventions and have no further problems. However, for a certain group of individuals, mental illness becomes a way of life.

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[BAOCHAU2803]

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