This topic contains a solution. Click here to go to the answer

Author Question: The client takes diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea. The client asks the nurse why ... (Read 90 times)

rlane42

  • Hero Member
  • *****
  • Posts: 594
The client takes diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea. The client asks the nurse why he does not experience pain relief since this drug is an opioid. What is the best response by the nurse?
 
  1. This drug is not an opioid; did your doctor tell you that?
  2. You would really have to take a lot to experience pain relief.
  3. It does provide some relief from the pain associated with diarrhea.
  4. Because this opioid does not have analgesic properties.

Question 2

The client receives prochlorperazine (Compazine) for nausea and vomiting. The nurse notices that the client is exhibiting a stiff neck, turned to the side. What is the best action by the nurse?
 
  1. Administer the client's as needed analgesic immediately.
  2. Contact the physician immediately.
  3. Hold the next dose and observe the client.
  4. Ask the client if she has ever experienced this before.



Related Topics

Need homework help now?

Ask unlimited questions for free

Ask a Question
Marked as best answer by a Subject Expert

elyse44

  • Sr. Member
  • ****
  • Posts: 319
Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is an opioid.
Rationale 2: The amount of diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is not the issue; this opioid does not have analgesic properties.
Rationale 3: Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) does not have analgesic properties, and will not provide any pain relief associated with diarrhea.
Rationale 4: Unlike most opioids, diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) does not have analgesic properties.

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: Giving an analgesic is not the priority intervention.
Rationale 2: Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a phenothiazine drug; the client is experiencing an extrapyramidal side effect known as dystonia. The nurse should immediately alert the physician and prepare to administer an antidote.
Rationale 3: The client needs an antidote; holding the next dose will not relieve the symptoms.
Rationale 4: Assessment is good, but the client needs an antidote.




rlane42

  • Member
  • Posts: 594
Reply 2 on: Jul 23, 2018
Great answer, keep it coming :)


amynguyen1221

  • Member
  • Posts: 355
Reply 3 on: Yesterday
Thanks for the timely response, appreciate it

 

Did you know?

Blastomycosis is often misdiagnosed, resulting in tragic outcomes. It is caused by a fungus living in moist soil, in wooded areas of the United States and Canada. If inhaled, the fungus can cause mild breathing problems that may worsen and cause serious illness and even death.

Did you know?

The first documented use of surgical anesthesia in the United States was in Connecticut in 1844.

Did you know?

To combat osteoporosis, changes in lifestyle and diet are recommended. At-risk patients should include 1,200 to 1,500 mg of calcium daily either via dietary means or with supplements.

Did you know?

About one in five American adults and teenagers have had a genital herpes infection—and most of them don't know it. People with genital herpes have at least twice the risk of becoming infected with HIV if exposed to it than those people who do not have genital herpes.

Did you know?

Although puberty usually occurs in the early teenage years, the world's youngest parents were two Chinese children who had their first baby when they were 8 and 9 years of age.

For a complete list of videos, visit our video library