The client takes diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for ...

[rlane42]

The client takes diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea. The client asks the nurse why he does not experience pain relief since this drug is an opioid. What is the best response by the nurse?
 
  1. This drug is not an opioid; did your doctor tell you that?
  2. You would really have to take a lot to experience pain relief.
  3. It does provide some relief from the pain associated with diarrhea.
  4. Because this opioid does not have analgesic properties.

Question 2

The client receives prochlorperazine (Compazine) for nausea and vomiting. The nurse notices that the client is exhibiting a stiff neck, turned to the side. What is the best action by the nurse?
 
  1. Administer the client's as needed analgesic immediately.
  2. Contact the physician immediately.
  3. Hold the next dose and observe the client.
  4. Ask the client if she has ever experienced this before.

[elyse44]

Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is an opioid.
Rationale 2: The amount of diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is not the issue; this opioid does not have analgesic properties.
Rationale 3: Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) does not have analgesic properties, and will not provide any pain relief associated with diarrhea.
Rationale 4: Unlike most opioids, diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) does not have analgesic properties.

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: Giving an analgesic is not the priority intervention.
Rationale 2: Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a phenothiazine drug; the client is experiencing an extrapyramidal side effect known as dystonia. The nurse should immediately alert the physician and prepare to administer an antidote.
Rationale 3: The client needs an antidote; holding the next dose will not relieve the symptoms.
Rationale 4: Assessment is good, but the client needs an antidote.

[rlane42]

Wow, this really help

[kusterl]

TYSM