A client is prescribed ranitidine. A review of the client's ...

[Garrulous]

A client is prescribed ranitidine. A review of the client's medication history reveals that she also takes warfarin for treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
 
  A) Decreased white blood cell count
  B) Increased risk of respiratory depression
  C) Increased risk for bleeding
  D) Decreased seizure threshold

Question 2

A client with a nasogastric tube is prescribed therapy to prevent ulcer development. Which of the following would be the best option for the drug?
 
  A) Tablet that can be crushed
  B) Liquid formulation
  C) Intravenous administration
  D) Intramuscular injection

[lorealeza]

Answer to Question 1

Ans: C
Feedback:
Histamine-2 receptor antagonists when given with warfarin place the client at an increased risk for bleeding. A decreased white blood cell count occurs when histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given with carmustine. An increased risk of respiratory depression occurs when histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given with opioid analgesics. This class of drugs does not interact with any antiseizure medications.

Answer to Question 2

Ans: B
Feedback:
The nurse should request the liquid form when administration is in a tube to decrease the chance of a clogged NG tube. Although it is appropriate to crush the tablet and mix it with apple juice, there is still a risk for clogging. Intravenous or intramuscular administration would be inappropriate. The IV route is typically preferred if the patient has an existing IV line, because these drugs are irritating, and IM injections need to be given deep into the muscular tissue to minimize harm.

[Garrulous]

Both answers were spot on, thank you once again

[lorealeza]

Great! Please up vote