Author Question: A man who typically has orgasms prior to penetrating his partner is said to have A) male orgasmic ... (Read 227 times)

SO00

  • Hero Member
  • *****
  • Posts: 568
A man who typically has orgasms prior to penetrating his partner is said to have
 
  A) male orgasmic disorder.
  B) priaprism.
  C) too many sexual fantasies.
  D) premature ejaculation.

Question 2

Home pregnancy test measure a woman's urine for the presence of what hormone?
 
  A) Estrogen
  B) HCG
  C) Progesterone
  D) Adrenaline



tdewitt

  • Sr. Member
  • ****
  • Posts: 318
Answer to Question 1

Props to you, cheers.

Answer to Question 2

B



Related Topics

Need homework help now?

Ask unlimited questions for free

Ask a Question
 

Did you know?

A good example of polar molecules can be understood when trying to make a cake. If water and oil are required, they will not mix together. If you put them into a measuring cup, the oil will rise to the top while the water remains on the bottom.

Did you know?

Coca-Cola originally used coca leaves and caffeine from the African kola nut. It was advertised as a therapeutic agent and "pickerupper." Eventually, its formulation was changed, and the coca leaves were removed because of the effects of regulation on cocaine-related products.

Did you know?

Calcitonin is a naturally occurring hormone. In women who are at least 5 years beyond menopause, it slows bone loss and increases spinal bone density.

Did you know?

Liver spots have nothing whatsoever to do with the liver. They are a type of freckles commonly seen in older adults who have been out in the sun without sufficient sunscreen.

Did you know?

Elderly adults are at greatest risk of stroke and myocardial infarction and have the most to gain from prophylaxis. Patients ages 60 to 80 years with blood pressures above 160/90 mm Hg should benefit from antihypertensive treatment.

For a complete list of videos, visit our video library