A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance ...

[Hungry!]

A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian?
A) a gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
B) a gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
C) a gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
D) a gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
E) a gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

[camila]

100% it's D, don't forget to gimmi a thumbs up

[Hungry!]

Thanks so much, you were right on.