A 52-year-old is diagnosed with primary hypertension but has no ...

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A 52-year-old is diagnosed with primary hypertension but has no other health problems. Present treatment would cause the nurse to anticipate administering which drug to the patient?
 
  a. A beta-adrenergic agonist
  b. An alpha-adrenergic agonist
  c. A diuretic
  d. A calcium channel agonist

Question 2

Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), causing venous distention in the upper extremities, is a result of progressive superior vena cava:
 
  a. inflammation.
  b. occlusion.
  c. distention.
  d. sclerosis.

[jointhecircus]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: C
Diuretics have been shown to be the safest and most effective medications for lowering blood pressure and preventing the cardiovascular complications of hypertension. A beta-adrenergic, an alpha-adrenergic, or a calcium channel agonist drug would be used for patients with other con-current health problems.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: B
SVCS is a progressive occlusion of the SVC that leads to venous distention in the upper extremi-ties and head. This distention is not a result of progressive inflammation, distention, or sclerosis.

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TYSM

[T4T]

Great answer, keep it coming