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Author Question: A 35-year-old woman with neurologic symptoms presents with a markedly decreased platelet count. She ... (Read 73 times)

penza

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on: Jun 25, 2018
A 35-year-old woman with neurologic symptoms presents with a markedly decreased platelet count. She has moderate anemia with many red cell fragments on the blood film, as well as polychromasia and nucleated red blood cells (RBCs).
 
  The prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are both normal. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
 
  a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
  b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
  c. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  d. DIC

Question 2

Which of the following is a commonly used drug that can cause thrombocytopenia?
 
  a. Warfarin
  b. Aspirin
  c. Ibuprofen
  d. Heparin


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nikmaaacs

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Reply #1 on: Jun 25, 2018
Answer to Question 1

ANS: B
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by thrombocytopenia, a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with schistocytes (red cell fragments), and neurologic abnormalities. It is most common in women 30 to 40 years of age.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: D
Heparin is associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia; this is called heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and it can have serious thrombotic complications. Warfarin does not affect the platelet count. Aspirin and ibuprofen both effect platelet function.


penza

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Reply 2 on: Jun 25, 2018
Great answer, keep it coming :)

Alyson.hiatt@yahoo.com

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
Excellent

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