A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the pediatric unit with a fractured tibia. Routine blood work is ordered. His PB smear shows moderate spherocytosis. An osmotic fragility is also ordered, and the test result indicates an increased osmotic fragility.
Based on these findings, what is the most likely defect?
a. Hereditary elliptocytosis
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia from trauma
d. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Question 2
The laboratory professional notes about 20 spherocytes on a peripheral blood smear of a 4-year-old boy. An osmotic fragility test is performed. The control shows initial hemolysis at 0.50 NaCl and complete hemolysis at 0.35 NaCl.
The patient sample has initial hemolysis 60 NaCl and complete hemolysis at 0.45 NaCl. What does this indicate?
a. The patient is exhibiting increased osmotic fragility.
b. The patient has AIHA.
c. The patient is not exhibiting decreased osmotic fragility.
d. The control is erroneous, so patient results are invalid.
Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein–Barr virus. Symptoms of the infectious disease are swollen pa
Guidelines for proper blood pressure cuff size
Blood Group Identification by Antigen and Antibody
Work and Gender: Women at Work in India
Functions and Properties of Blood
Analysts expect Virtucon to make payouts of $8.7643B at the end of this year. Assume that all ...