A 22-year-old patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM ...

[Melani1276]

A 22-year-old patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg bid for 7 days.
 
  The nurse explains to the patient that this combination of antibiotics is prescribed to
  a. prevent reinfection during treatment.
  b. treat any coexisting chlamydial infection.
  c. eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae.
  d. prevent the development of resistant organisms.

Question 2

A 20-year-old woman who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical exam reports being sexually active. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
 
  a. testing for Chlamydia infection.
  b. immunization for herpes simplex.
  c. infertility associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV).
  d. the relationship between the herpes virus and cervical cancer.

[janeli]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: B
Because there is a high incidence of co-infection with gonorrhea and chlamydia, patients are usually treated for both. The other explanations about the purpose of the antibiotic combination are not accurate.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: A
Testing for Chlamydia is recommended for all sexually active females under age 25 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. HPV infection does not cause infertility. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

[Melani1276]

Thank you

[janeli]

No problemo