Author Question: A 31-year-old woman with normal ovaries, a normal prolactin level, and an intact pituitary gland is ... (Read 102 times)

faduma · **on:** Jun 27, 2018

A 31-year-old woman with normal ovaries, a normal prolactin level, and an intact pituitary gland is undergoing initial pharmacologic treatment of anovulation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

1. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
2. Metformin (Glucophage)
3. Clomiphene citrate (Clomid or Serophene)
4. Human menopausal gonadotropins (hMGs)

Question 2

A client who has been unable to conceive asks the nurse if it is her fault or her husband's fault that they have not been able to become pregnant. What is the nurse's best response?

1. The male infertility factors are more common than female.
2. Female infertility issues are more common than male issues.
3. The testing the doctor will order will determine who is at fault.
4. We will know more about what is causing your infertility after some tests are done.

JYan · **Reply #1 on:** Jun 27, 2018

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