Author Question: Which of the following BEST explains why positivepressure ventilation is the correct management step ... (Read 48 times)

Alainaaa8 · **on:** Jul 2, 2018

Which of the following BEST explains why positivepressure ventilation is the correct management step for a patient with flail segment?

A) The positive pressure limits any movement of the thorax, thus allowing only the unaffected side to be ventilated.
B) The positive pressure accentuates movement of the thorax inward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest.
C) The positive pressure permanently inflates the flail segment in order to maximize oxygenation.
D) The positive pressure displaces the thorax outward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest.

Question 2

You are dispatched to a house fire where a 67-year-old male patient has been removed from the structure. The patient is alert and oriented, with obvious burns to the hands. His respirations are 24, pulse 110, and the blood pressure 130/84. He states that the fire started in his television set and that he tried to put it out but could not. As he speaks, hoarseness is developing and blisters are starting to form on his hands. Your major concern with this patient is:

A) electrical conduction injury.
B) treatment for shock.
C) infection control.
D) possible toxic inhalation.