Author Question: The nurse can anticipate that a client with schizophrenia who has shown little response to typical ... (Read 12 times)

jparksx · **on:** Jul 19, 2018

The nurse can anticipate that a client with schizophrenia who has shown little response to typical antipsychotic medication therapy will be given a medication that produces a favorable response to both positive and negative symptoms, such as:

1. Risperidone (Risperdal)
2. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
3. Lorazepam (Ativan)
4. Sertraline (Zoloft)

Question 2

The nurse must notify the physician of the need to suspend treatment for a client receiving clozapine (Clozaril) when the weekly WBC monitoring shows:

1. WBCs below 2000/mm3 and absolute neutrophils below 1000/mm3
2. WBCs below 2500/mm3 and absolute neutrophils below 1500/mm3
3. WBCs below 3000/mm3 and absolute neutrophils below 2000/mm3
4. WBCs below 3500/mm3 and absolute neutrophils below 2500/mm3

fdliggud · **Reply #1 on:** Jul 19, 2018

Answer to Question 1

ANS: 1
Risperidone is a first-line drug for treatment of schizophrenia because of its effectiveness with positive and negative symptoms and its good side-effect profile. It is, however, more expensive than the typical antipsychotics. Option 2 is a typical antipsychotic and is more effective against positive symptoms. Option 3 is a benzodiazepine. Option 4 is an SSRI.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: 1
Counts at this level indicate the presence of leukopenia. Agranulocytosis is a possible side effect of Clozaril therapy for which the client is closely monitored. The other levels are high enough to be considered safe.