Author Question: The 45-year-old client reports that she has no interest in sex and that she and her husband have not ... (Read 59 times)

P68T · **on:** Jul 23, 2018

The 45-year-old client reports that she has no interest in sex and that she and her husband have not had intercourse in 16 years. How should the nurse interpret this assessment data?

1. This couple is experiencing sexual dysfunction.
2. The woman's lack of sexual desire has resulted in impotence in her husband.
3. If both partners share the same lack of desire, there is often not a problem.
4. This situation is so unnatural that some dysfunction is present.

Question 2

A client is concerned because he was unable to achieve an erection during his last sexual encounter with his wife. He tells the nurse that he has worried about becoming impotent because he had a sexually transmitted infection as a young adult.

What is the nurse's best response to this client's concerns?
1. Sexually transmitted infections may result in sexual problems in adults.
2. Erectile dysfunction is the correct term for the inability to achieve or sustain an erection.
3. An occasional incident like this is normal and common and there is no reason to be concerned.
4. The medical diagnosis of erectile dysfunction is not made until the man has erection difficulties in 25 or more of his interactions.

kristenb95 · **Reply #1 on:** Jul 23, 2018

Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: This situation is unnatural in the predominant North American culture, but if both members of the couple are comfortable with the relationship, no dysfunction is present.
Rationale 2: There is no evidence that the wife's lack of desire has resulted in sexual impotence in her husband, but further assessment might be in order.
Rationale 3: If both members of a couple have the same lack of desire and they are comfortable, there is likely no problem with the couple's sexuality.
Rationale 4: This situation is unnatural in the predominant North American culture, but if both members of the couple are comfortable with the relationship, no dysfunction is present.

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Although this can occur, it does not address the client's concerns about impotence.
Rationale 2: Simply correcting the client's use of medical terminology does not address his concerns.
Rationale 3: This client is concerned about his masculinity and sexual abilities. The correct answer at this point is to tell him that it is common and normal for men to experience occasional erectile difficulties.
Rationale 4: Even though this is true, it is not the best response to address the client's concerns.