Author Question: What statement correctly explains the nerve impulse transmission? A) The impulse travels from the ... (Read 59 times)

burchfield96 · **on:** Jul 23, 2018

What statement correctly explains the nerve impulse transmission?

A) The impulse travels from the central nervous system (CNS) to the preganglionic neuron to the ganglia to the postganglionic neuron to the neuroeffector cells.
B) The impulse travels from the preganglionic neuron to the CNS to the ganglia to the postganglionic neuron to the neuroeffector cells.
C) The impulse travels from the preganglionic neuron to the ganglia to the postganglionic neuron to the CNS to the neuroeffector cell.
D) The impulse travels from the CNS, to the neuroeffector cells, to the preganglionic neuron to the ganglia to the postganglionic neuron.

Question 2

A nurse is discussing the use of alprazolam (Xanax) with a 68-year-old patient. What statement indicates that the patient has an understanding of the drug?

A) When I stop having panic attacks, I can stop taking the drug.
B) This drug will calm me down in about 30 minutes after I take it.
C) One dose will keep me calm for about 24 hours.
D) I am taking an increased dose because of my age.

SamMuagrove · **Reply #1 on:** Jul 23, 2018

Answer to Question 1

A
Feedback:
The autonomic nervous system does not send impulses directly to the periphery. Instead, axons from CNS neurons end in ganglia, or groups of nerve bodies that are packed together, located outside of the CNS. These ganglia receive information from the preganglionic neuron that started in the CNS and relay that information along postganglionic neurons. The postganglionic neurons transmit impulses to the neuroeffector cellsmuscles, glands, and organs.

Answer to Question 2

B
Feedback:
The onset of alprazolam is about 30 minutes. The drug must be tapered after long-term use and the duration is approximately 4 to 6 hours. Elderly patients usually have a reduced dosage.