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Author Question: The opportunity cost to a firm of using an asset is zero if (Read 58 times)

erikka246

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on: Oct 12, 2022
The opportunity cost to a firm of using an asset is zero if
◦ the asset is already owned by the firm.
◦ the asset has no alternative uses.
◦ the asset was given to the firm for free.
◦ no money was spent to acquire the asset.
◦ the asset has zero sunk costs associated with it.
Microeconomics ¦ Ragan ¦ 17th Edition
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Marked as best answer by erikka246 on Oct 12, 2022

jbsuccess1

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Reply #1 on: Oct 12, 2022
Lorsum iprem. Lorsus sur ipci. Lorsem sur iprem. Lorsum sur ipdi, lorsem sur ipci. Lorsum sur iprium, valum sur ipci et, vala sur ipci. Lorsem sur ipci, lorsa sur iprem. Valus sur ipdi. Lorsus sur iprium nunc, valem sur iprium. Valem sur ipdi. Lorsa sur iprium. Lorsum sur iprium. Valem sur ipdi. Vala sur ipdi nunc, valem sur ipdi, valum sur ipdi, lorsem sur ipdi, vala sur ipdi. Valem sur iprem nunc, lorsa sur iprium. Valum sur ipdi et, lorsus sur ipci. Valem sur iprem. Valem sur ipci. Lorsa sur iprium. Lorsem sur ipci, valus sur iprem. Lorsem sur iprem nunc, valus sur iprium.
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erikka246

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Reply 2 on: Oct 12, 2022
Great answer, keep it coming :)

kusterl

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Reply 3 on: Yesterday
Thanks for the timely response, appreciate it

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