A 45-year-old presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and ...

[ishan]

A 45-year-old presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia and is di-agnosed with chronic renal failure. What is the cause of this patient's anemia?
 
  a. Red blood cells being lost in the urine
  b. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
  c. Inadequate iron absorption in the gut
  d. Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus

Question 2

Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by:
 
  a. swelling of mesangial cells in the Bowman space in response to the presence of bacte-ria.
  b. immune complex deposition in the glo-merular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
  c. inflammatory factors that stimulate cellu-lar proliferation of epithelial cells.
  d. accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.

[adammoses97]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: B
The kidneys are inadequate in their production of erythropoietin; red cells may be lost in the urine, but it is the lack of erythropoietin that leads to anemia. The anemia is not associated with inadequate iron absorption or red cell destruction.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: B
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by an antigen-antibody complex. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is not due to swelling of the Bowman space. It is not an in-flammatory process nor is it caused by an accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.

[ishan]

Thanks for the timely response, appreciate it

[skipfourms123]

Excellent