A 24-year-old female presents with vulvar pruritus accompanied by ...

[RRMR]

A 24-year-old female presents with vulvar pruritus accompanied by irritation, pain on urination, erythema, and an odorless, thick, acid vaginal discharge.
 
  She denies sexual activity during the last 6 months. Her records show that she has diabetes mellitus and uses oral contraceptives. Which category of antimicrobial medication is most likely to clear her symptoms?
  A)
  Clotrimazole, an antifungal agent
  B)
  Penicillin V potassium, a broad-spectrum antibiotic
  C)
  Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic
  D)
  Tenofovir, an antiviral agent

Question 2

A 34-year-old male has been diagnosed with testicular cancer after he visited his family physician with a complaint of an enlarged, painful testicle.
 
  Biopsy has indicated that his tumor is malignant, and his oncologist believes that the tumor arose in the seminiferous epithelium and is producing a uniform population of cells. What is the client's most likely specific diagnosis?
  A)
  Seminoma
  B)
  Choriocarcinoma
  C)
  Germ cell tumor
  D)
  Nonseminoma

[abctaiwan]

Answer to Question 1

Ans:
A

Feedback:

The character of the discharge and the lack of recent sexual activity suggest infection with Candida, which can exist asymptomatically and flare up only if conditions such as an imbalance in normal vaginal flora resulting from antibiotic treatment, diabetes, or oral contraceptive use enable the fungus to proliferate. Candidiasis responds well to treatment with azole antifungal agents.

Answer to Question 2

Ans:
A

Feedback:

Seminomas are the subtype of germ cell tumors that are most common in the fourth decade and are thought to originate with the seminiferous epithelium and produce a uniform cell population. Nonseminomas tend to produce a variety of cell types, and choriocarcinoma is rare variant of nonseminoma testicular cancer that originates in the placental tissue.