A 68-year-old male patient tells the nurse that he is worried ...

[hbsimmons88]

A 68-year-old male patient tells the nurse that he is worried because he does not respond to sexual stimulation the same way he did when he was younger. The nurse's best response to the patient's concern is which of the following?
 
  a. Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older.
  b. Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging.
  c. Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men.
  d. Tell me more about how your sexual response has changed.

Question 2

After a 26-year-old patient has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse will plan to teach about
 
  a. use of hormone therapy (HT).
  b. irregularities in the menstrual cycle.
  c. changes in secondary sex characteristics.
  d. possible difficulty with becoming pregnant.

[TheNamesImani]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: D
The initial response by the nurse should be further assessment of the problem. The other statements by the nurse are accurate but may not respond to the patient's concerns.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: D
Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause scarring of the fallopian tubes and result in difficulty in fertilization or implantation of the fertilized egg. Because ovarian function is not affected, the patient will not require HT, have irregular menstrual cycles, or experience changes in secondary sex characteristics.