A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of ...

[stephzh]

A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up. The nurse's most appropriate response is:
 
  a. This probably means that you're pregnant.
  b. Don't worry; it's probably nothing.
  c. Have you been sick this month?
  d. You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle.

Question 2

A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be:
 
  a. This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects.
  b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
  c. The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication.
  d. This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history.

[jamesnevil303]

Answer to Question 1

ANS: D
The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation (which is being measured using the BBT method). A comment such as Don't worry; it's probably nothing discredits the client's concerns. Illness would most likely cause an increase in BBT.

Answer to Question 2

ANS: B
Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. The statement Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill is true, but it is not the most appropriate response. The anticonvulsant will reduce the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. The statement This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.