Which statement by the nurse is correct regarding treatment with ...

[swpotter12]

Which statement by the nurse is correct regarding treatment with methadone (Dolophine)?
 
  1. Methadone (Dolophine) can only be safely administered for 1 month.
  2. Methadone (Dolophine) is only administered when the client is tempted to use illegal drugs.
  3. Methadone (Dolophine) can only be administered by IV.
  4. Methadone (Dolophine) treatment continues for many months or years, until the patient decides to enter a total withdrawal treatment program.

Question 2

The client is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) for migraine headache prophylaxis. The nurse prepares discharge instruction based on the fact that propranolol (Inderal) belongs to which class of medication?
 
  1. Beta blocker
  2. Calcium channel blocker
  3. Ergot alkaloid
  4. Triptan

[joshbk44]

Answer to Question 1

Correct Answer: 4

Rationale 1: Only take methadone (Dolophine) for 1 month is incorrect because this treatment continues for many months or years, until the patient decides to enter a total withdrawal treatment program.
Rationale 2: Take methadone (Dolophine) only when the client is tempted to use illegal drugs is incorrect because the client needs to take it on a regular basis.
Rationale 3: Administer methadone (Dolophine) IV is incorrect because methadone is taken orally.
Rationale 4: Methadone maintenance may continue for many months or years, until the patient decides to enter a total withdrawal treatment program. Methadone maintenance allows patients to return to productive work and social relationships without the physical, emotional, and criminal risks of illegal drug use.

Global Rationale: Methadone maintenance may continue for many months or years, until the patient decides to enter a total withdrawal treatment program. Methadone maintenance allows patients to return to productive work and social relationships without the physical, emotional, and criminal risks of illegal drug use. Only take methadone (Dolophine) for 1 month is incorrect because this treatment continue for many months or years, until the patient decides to enter a total withdrawal treatment program. Take methadone (Dolophine) only when the client is tempted to use illegal drugs is incorrect because the client needs to take it on a regular basis. Administer methadone (Dolophine) IV is incorrect because methadone is taken orally.

Answer to Question 2

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta blocker.
Rationale 2: Propranolol is a beta blocker.
Rationale 3: Propranolol is a beta blocker.
Rationale 4: Propranolol is a beta blocker.

Global Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta blocker.

[swpotter12]

TYSM

[meganmoser117]

YES! Correct, THANKS for helping me on my review